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- "by an abuse of notation" vs. "by abuse of notation"

Subject: | "by an abuse of notation" vs. "by abuse of notation" |

Posted by: | Jaakov (jaakovREMOVE…@DELETEITro.ru) |

Date: | Thu, 30 Apr 2015 |

Dear all:

Which one is correct and why:

- By an abuse of notation, we use the same symbol here as in Section 1.

- By abuse of notation, we use the same symbol here as in Section 1.

Thank you in advance,

Jaakov.

- Re: "by an abuse of notation" vs. "by abuse of notation" posted by Don Phillipson on Thu, 30 Apr 2015
- Re: "by an abuse of notation" vs. "by abuse of notation" posted by Anton Shepelev on Thu, 30 Apr 2015