"by an abuse of notation" vs. "by abuse of notation"

Giganews Newsgroups
Subject: "by an abuse of notation" vs. "by abuse of notation"
Posted by:  Jaakov (jaakovREMOVE…@DELETEITro.ru)
Date: Thu, 30 Apr 2015

Dear all:

Which one is correct and why:

- By an abuse of notation, we use the same symbol here as in Section 1.
- By    abuse of notation, we use the same symbol here as in Section 1.

Thank you in advance,

Jaakov.

Replies